It is most certain that all Men, as they are the Sons of Adam, are; and have equal Right unto Liberty, and all other outward Comforts of Life. God hath the Earth [with all its Commodities] unto the sons of Adam. Pal 115,16. And hath made of One Blood, all Nations of Men, for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the Times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation.

Jared's assignment is to write a counter-argument to Sewell's claim as written in paragraph 1 of "The Selling of Joseph." He is planning to write in the form of a pamphlet as Sewell did, using the punctuation, capitalization, spelling and semantics that were in common use in 1700. Which statement best explains these differences that can be noted in this excerpt?

The excerpt uses the special rules of English punctuation, capitalization, and spelling that were in use at the time of King James and were therefore common in the KJV Bible.
The excerpt was written by a man who was very knowledgeable about Biblical facts, but was likely bilingual and did not have understanding of correct English usage.
The excerpt contains words that are capitalized because they are used as proper nouns and their emphasis is altered accordingly.
The excerpt uses the conventions of standard English grammar that was in use at the time that the article was written.

The English language has undergone considerable change over the centuries. If we were to compare the English we speak nowadays to the Old English used to write Beowulf without knowing they are related, we would possibly think they are two completely different languages.

English in the 1700's, however, already looked and sounded much like the Modern English we speak. One of the differences that can be noted and that we may find in the excerpt is the third person conjugation. We now add an -s to the end of the verb where, at that time, a -th was added: has vs. hath. "God hath the Earth."