1) In this question we need to remind ourselves that there is one equivalence between quarts and pints, namely:
[tex]1\:quart--->2\:pint[/tex]2) Based on that, we can write out the following set of ratios:
[tex]\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{2}{x} \\ \\ x=2\times6\frac{1}{2} \\ \\ x=13 \end{gathered}[/tex]Note that there is a proportional relationship between them.
3) Thus, this is the answer.