Answer:
f(x) and g(x) have the same y-intercept
Step-by-step explanation:
the y-intercept is the point, where the graph intersects the y-axis.
and what is the definition of the y-axis ? it is
x = 0
for all the values up and down the y-axis, their x-coordinate is 0.
so, to find the y-intercept we find the functional value for x = 0.
and that is here in both cases : -32
and the y-intersect point is therefore for both functions:
(0, -32)