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Why did Churchill oppose the appeasement of Hitler in 1938 (pp. 390-392)? How did this influence his proposed foreign policy with regard to the Soviet Union after the war in "The Iron Curtain" (pp. 452-453)?

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In regards to the first part of the question...

Winston Churchill was against appeasement as he didn't believe the policy would be successful. When Hitler took over the rest of Czechoslovakia in 1939, it proved the policy of appeasement had failed.

In regards to the second part of the question...

There were  parallels between the actions of Germany and the Soviet Union, although at different time periods. Churchill made the link, proclaiming that we could not "appease" the Soviet Union, when it came to their actions in Berlin. {Study the Berlin Airlift if you want a more detailed explanation.}

- Hope this helped.

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