Answer:0.9306
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
Probability of winning [tex]p=0.632[/tex]
Probability of losing [tex]q=0.368[/tex]
Such that [tex]p+q=1[/tex]
Applying binomioal distribution for n=10 trials
Probability of winning no more than 8 time=P
[tex]P(r\leq 8)+P(r>8)=1[/tex]
[tex]P(r\leq 8)=1-P(r>8)[/tex]
[tex]P(r\leq 8)=1-^{10}C_9(p)^9(q)-^{10}C_{10}(p)^{10}(q)^0[/tex]
[tex]P(r\leq 8)=1-^{10}C_9(0.632)^9(0.368)-^{10}C_{10}(0.632)^{10}(0.368)^0[/tex]
[tex]P=P(r\leq 8)=0.9306[/tex]