Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.